Contents
Ready for the Checkride:
--Be prepared to a level of competent control, conscientious planning, and safety.
--No need know every answer in every item on flying you've ever read.
--No need to be an expert in your technical knowledge...
--No need to be flying to the level of an ATP...
--The examiners are concerned with your ability to exercise good judgment, and ability to fly safely. Perfection is not a requirement.
--If you make a mistake, suggest that you start over since you can do better.
--Examiners are willing to give a second chance.
--If you make a poor approach to a landing, Advise the examiner as to why you are dissatisfied and make an early go-around. This shows good judgment, not poor flying.
--Try to relax. Use the flight as an opportunity to demonstrate how well you have been trained.
--The worst that is going to happen is failing the checkride. The failure is more likely to save your life than not.
--Don't worry about failing; concentrate on your flying. Your instructor signed you off because he believed you could pass.
--The retest will be to check those areas that you had difficulty with.
--Make sure you know where to find the answers. Use the AIM/FAR, POH, weight and balance documents, E6B, sectional, A/FD or weather briefing material.
--Have a book selection available. If you can't answer a question, ask if you can use your materials to find the answer.
--Log on to DUATS for a weather briefing every day before the test. Bring the briefing and be able to read it. Bring a copy of the weight and balance with you.
--Be prepared to say "I can find that in the AIM." or "That's in the POH. Let's look in the FARs.
--A simulated emergency does not give you the right to deviate from the FAR's; only a real emergency does that.
--As the pilot in command during your test you are the responsible party for the safety of the flight. If the DE suggests anything you feel to be less than safe, make an alternate suggestion that you feel more appropriate.
--Keep your airspeed below Va. Advise the DE of your altitude and heading on entry.
--Hold your altitude and divide your attention in and out of the airplane.
--Keep flight coordinated and at altitude. Fly at cruise power in ground reference so you can reduce the hazard of a low speed low altitude stall. Losing altitude is most likely due to making a steeper bank. If you lose altitude in a bank, reduce the bank angle before applying pitch change. Rolling out on headings is required to meet PTS criteria.
--Study the engine and airframe logbooks before the test post-it inspections.
--"Clear!"; Do the brake check; and check engine instruments at start, runup, flight configuration changes and flight checkpoints.
--If the landing doesn't feel right, go around.
--There is no way to make every approach lead to a good landing.
--Fly the airplane first, talk is a distant second.
--Violating a PTS tolerance is not the end of the test. If you are making a correction you may still perform acceptably.
--Coordination is expected in every maneuver but especially during a takeoff, stalls and steep turns.
--Know the three types of NOTAMs. Get them for your flight.
Complex Questions
You Should Be Able to Explain Simply for the Checkride
1. What makes an airplane stall?
2. What are flaps for?
3. Why does a plane turn when banked?
4. Why do we lean the mixture?
5. What is the rudder for?
6. What is density altitude?
7. How does density altitude affect the airplane?
8. How does density altitude affect performance?
9. How are flight controls used for taxiing?
10. Why do we takeoff and land at Vref?
11. What is ground effect?
12. What determines if a crosswind landing is possible?
13. Why is a constant approach speed helpful?
14. What is the difference between TC and TH?
15. How many brief statements can you make about the wind?
16. How do we use MC?
17. How is the initial call-up to Approach Control different from FSSs?
18. What special use has the frequency: 122.0, 122.2, 122.1, 122.95, 122.9, 122.75
19. What does an amber beacon at an airport mean? (Obsolete and being replaced by the letters RT on sectional charts.
20. How many differences are there in fuel?
21. How many different ways can you use to find an unknown frequency?
22. How many different ways can you use to determine runway in use?
Answers:
1. Angle of Attack
2. Angle of descent
3. Change in lift vectors
4. Weight of air/fuel mix for performance
5. Keeps tail behind nose
6. Aircraft performance altitude
7. Power, lift, thrust
8. Faster ground speeds, lower climb rate
9. Clime into; dive away
10. Weight determines Vso for shortest performance
11. 1/2 wingspan AGL region of low drag=best performance
12. Keeping nose straight
13. Improves judgment
14. WCA (Wind correction angle)
15. Never as forecast
16. Sets flight altitudes above 3000' AGL
17. Identification and "over", vs identification and "frequency"
18. Flight watch, FSS universal, FSS receive only; all controlled airports UNICOM; airports w/unlisted freq.air to air
19. Right traffic (Amber light on wind sock pole is being replaced by the letters RT on sectionals.
20. Octane, color, smell, feel, residue
21. too many; make your own list
22. too many; make your own list
Questions and Answers
Checkride questions/answers1
1. What must be in the pilots possession before flight?
2. What entries must be in a pilot's log book before he can legally carry passengers?
3. What are required papers for an aircraft?
4. What must preflight items include?
5. Name four specific use transponder codes.
6. Name four specific oxygen use levels.
7. Where is an altitude encoder required?
8. Name maximum speeds required by FAR's.
9. Discuss altitude requirements required by FAR's such as: minimum safe, requirements for inhabited areas, populated stadiums, one person, cloud clearances/altitudes
Answers
1. A pilot must have in his possession for flight a pilot license that is good until revoked and current medical good 6-months, 1-year, 2-years. And three by class depending on age. (radio not required in U. S.)
2. A pilot's logbook must have a current flight review or new rating acquired, verified takeoffs/landings under day/night conditions in last 90 days, Checkout and endorsements in type, high altitude, complex aircraft, and high performance required.
3. An aircraft must have visible in the cockpit its airworthiness, registration, (radio station for foreign flight), manual or placards of limitations. Weight and balance, limitation placards, ELT battery life limit placard must be available in aircraft. The engine-log, aircraft log and ELT battery installation dated/signed not required aboard but must be available.
4. A preflight must have all available information related to; weather; aircraft performance; fuel to destination plus 30 min. day, 45 min. night; destination runway lengths; alternatives. Sectional not specifically mentioned.
A current Airport/Facilities directory is highly recommended.
5. Basic transponder codes are: 1200 VFR; 7700 emergency; 7600 radio emergency; and 7500 hijack.
6. Below 12500 none; 12500 to 14000 1/2 hour none; 14000 to 15000 pilot; above 15000 everybody.
7. A Mode C altitude transponder altitude encoder is required above 10,000', within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airport, and inside, above, or below the footprint of Class C airspace.
8. Maximum speeds for aircraft is set at 250-kts below 10,000; 200 kts below class B, C or in Class D airspace.
9. Minimum safe is being able to land no damage/injury; 1000 above 2000 lateral stadiums and congested areas; 500' clear of people in sparse areas; no limit if intention to land; local jurisdictions set limits at airports; cloud clearance require clear of clouds below 700'/1200' Class G; 1000 above, 500 below and 2000 lateral clearance required below 10,000', 1000' above/below and 1-mile lateral clearance required above 10,000'; 2500 AGL above Class Delta; no flight above /below Class Bravo without clearance; 12500,14000,15000 oxygen requirements; above 10,000' transponder is required ; 18,000 IFR. DME required above 24,000'.
Checkride Questions/Answers2
1. Discuss existence, function, and requirements of Class Delta Airspace
2.How is traffic direction determined at differing airports?
3. What is the hemispheric rule and when does it not apply?
4. How is the Magnetic Course used in the real world of flying?
5. How is Magnetic Course obtained?
6. What does the isogonic line show?
7. Identify the ATC light signals.
8. When weather minimums go below VFR minimums of three mile visibility or a ceiling of less than 1000' special VFR (SVFR) clearances are required in Classes D and C airports. What does this clearance do?
Answers
1. Class Delta airspace exists when the tower is open, communications out and prior to departure, controls traffic but not separation. Class Delta limits airspace to one aircraft at a time when weather is below VFR minimums to guarantee IFR aircraft separation. The Class Delta is of varied diameter and shape. Size is standard at 4.1-nautical miles from airport center. Class Delta can be as small as 3.1 nautical miles (CCR).
2. Standard traffic is left turns unless tower clearances, instructions, segmented circle; wind indicators; or amber light on windsock specify right traffic.
3. All aircraft above the ground by more than 3000' must comply with the hemispheric rule when in level flight. Easterly magnetic courses are ate odd-thousands + 500' and westerly courses are at even-thousands + 500' Within 3000' of the ground the hemispheric rule does not apply..
4. Magnetic course determines if the hemispheric rule applies above 3000' AGL.
5. The magnetic course is found by taking the + angular difference between the true-north pole lines of a chart and the direction a compass points to as magnetic north pole. The amount is indicated on magenta isogonic lines the run as - - - - diagonally across the chart in about 1-foot intervals. Somewhere along the line there will be a degree or degree-30-minute number giving the variation. The letter E for east means that the difference is subtracted and the letter W for west means to add this number to the True Course direction. This angle can be determined by comparing the two 'norths' of a VOR compass rose.
6. The angular difference between the north pole and magnetic north.
7. See chart in AIM. Flashing white no meaning in air, flashing red on ground clear runway.
8. The Classes B, C and D areas are shown as --- , magenta, or blue on the sectional. San Francisco does not allow fixed wing SVFR. ATC can issue a SVFR clearance only at a pilot's request. The Clearance specifies
certain directions, altitudes, distances and restrictions for both flying and reporting. All of this clearance should be written down and read back to ATC. The restrictions are as to altitude, visibility and cloud clearance.
Maintaining SVFR requires at least one-mile visibility and clear of clouds.
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