Question
1. Is a pilot required to begin an approach at an IAF?
2. When is an approach an IFR approach?
3. Which NOTAMs are about navigational facilities, public airports, etc.?
4. Which NOTAMs are about taxiway closures, taxiway lighting, and beacons?
5. Which NOTAMs apply to regulations, charts and flight restrictions?
6. What is the requirement to advise ATC when you change departure time?
7. What must you do if you miss a clearance void time takeoff?
8. How is obstacle clearance provided during an IFR departure?
9. When must you advise ATC of a change in airspeed?
10. When should ATC give a clearance beyond your clearance limit if there are no delays?
11. What does MSA (minimum safe altitude) have to do with approaches?
12. What are the limitations of the MVA.
13. What does 'cleared for the option' mean on an IFR approach?
14. How is a VDP (visual descent point) used?
15. What is the meaning of 'minimum fuel advisory"?
16. During a visual approach, when is radar service terminated?
17. What is the minimum climb rate required for an unpublished IFR departure?
18 Transitioning from enroute to an approach transitions what airspace?
19. What is the universal definition of uncontrolled airspace?
20. What clearances can be issued to a pilot by ATC without being asked?

Answers
1. There is no requirement to begin an approach at an IAF.
2. An IFR approach is an IFR approach when any part of the approach is IFR or under the hood.
3. Distant NOTAMs AIM 5-3
4. Local NOTAMs AIM 5-3
5. Flight Data Center NOTAMs, FDCs. AIM 5-3
6. Notify ATC if you are delayed more than an hour. AIM 5-11
7. You cannot depart after a clearance void time and you must advise ATC within 30 minutes. AIM 5-23
8. It is the pilot's responsibility as to procedure and obstacle clearance. AIM 5-25
9. If your flight true airspeed varies from your filed true airspeed by 5% or 10 knots, ATC expects to be advised.
10. ATC should issue a clearance beyond the fix as soon as possible and at least five minutes before reaching the clearance limit. AIM 4- 82
11. MSA is for emergency use only. Measured from NDB or VOR. AIM 5-44
12. MVA always provides 1000' terrain clearance but may not provide 2000' in mountains. AIM 5-44
13. "Option" means you can make low approach, missed approach, touch-and-go, stop-and-go, or full stop. AIM 4-71
14. Visual descent points are used only on non-precision straight in approaches. AIM 5-44
15. Minimum fuel advisory by the pilot does not give priority. AIM 5-84
16. Radar service is terminated when you are told to contact the tower. AIM 5-80
17. 200 fpm.
18. Transitions use airspace from 700/1200 AGL to the base of the overlying airspace.
19. ATC does not control aircraft in uncontrolled airspace.
20. ATC can issue a pilot a visual approach, STAR, or SID when it wants to.

Question
1. At what distance from the airport do you usually intercept the glideslope?
2. Why do some glide slopes prohibit coupled approaches?
3. Marker crossing altitudes on the charts are given above (what)?
4. How far out can you intercept and track a glideslope?
5. What is required for ATC to authorize visual separation?
6. What are minimum visual separation standards?
7. What are Class B visual separation standards?
8. What are visual separation standards if radar is not available?
9. What is the effect of a pilot’s admission of visual contact?
10. Where is visual separation not allowed.
11. On accepting visual separation what does ATC expect of the pilot?
12. Can two departing IFR aircraft request ‘visual separation’?
13. What is the visual separation limitations for Class E airspace.
14. What will the alternate static source do to instrument readings?
15. What is the effect on the VSI of a blocked static source?
16. Why do we vary the angle of attack during a level turn?
17. What procedure will correctly give the climb lead necessary to level off at a given altitude?
18. What factors influence how to lead a level off from a descent?

Answer
1. Glide slopes are usually intercepted 10 miles from the threshold.
2. If terrain caused glideslope problems can't be fixed, no coupled approaches are allowed.
3. Both NOS and Jepp as MSL and AGL above TDZE
4. Watch out for false slopes but there is no regulation saying when to intercept.
5. Conditions must allow continual visual contact of one aircraft with another.
6. Pilot decision determines visual separation minimums.
7. See answer # 6.
8. Radar is not a factor in visual separation
9. Once a pilot has visual contact, separation responsibility rests entirely with the pilot.
10. Class A airspace does not allow visual separation.
11. The pilot is expected to maneuver to maintain visual separation once it has been granted by ATC.
12. Two departing IFR aircraft can be granted ‘visual separation’ by ATC but the entire burden of such responsibility rests on the pilot.
13. There are no visual separation limitations in Class E airspace.
14. With an active alternate static source the altimeter will read higher than it should. Indicated airspeed will read higher than it should. The VSI will show initial climb.
15. Whatever the VSI is reading at the moment of blockage will remain constant regardless of the aircraft behavior. The VSI works on differential pressures of a sealed chamber and the static air source.
16. In a level turn the vertical lift component is decreased by the amount of force required to make the turn. To hold altitude, this decrease must be compensated by an increase in angle of attack.
17. The easiest way to lead your leveling off at a given altitude is to use 10% of your vertical climb speed.
18. The lead required to level off from a descent is determined by the speed of descent and the selected level airspeed. If descent and level are to be at the same speed use 10% of descent rate. If level speed is to be higher then bring up power at 20% of descent rate point and hold nose for speed increase but allow to rise at % point for level flight at higher than descent speed.

Question
1. If the ATIS does not give sky conditions you are supposed to know...
2. How does 'see and avoid' apply to IFR flight?
3. Where is VFR-on-top not allowed?
4. How do you determine a proper altitude if cleared VFR-on-top?
5. What reports are required when VFR-on-top?
6. What reports require a specific ATC request?
7. At what point should the outbound timing begin when holding at an NDB?
8. When cleared for a visual approach, when can you commence descending?
9. Are you required to report leaving an altitude?
10. What does 'cruise 6000' mean?
11. What climb/descent rate does ATC expect from you?
12. What does 'expedite' mean when used by ATC over the radio?
13. Breaking the VSI glass will restore the pitot-static system except for the VSI. When will the VSI read accurately?
14. How long will a terminal forecast (FT) be valid?
15. Transcribed Weather Broadcast route forecasts are issued twice a day and are valid for how long?
16. How will a briefer inform you that flight under VFR is questionable?
17. Why would an AIRMET not be issued over an area with moderate icing, moderate turbulence, 30+ knot winds, and ceilings of below 1000' and visibility less than three miles with extensive mountain obscuration?
18. Where can you expect microbursts.
19. Why is holding prohibited over the areas of a glideslope?

Answer
1. No sky condition in the ATIS means ceiling over 5000' and 5 mile visibility. AIM 4-13

2. When conditions permit, IFR pilots are expected to "see and avoid". FAR 91.113

3. No VFR of any kind is allowed in Class A airspace.

4. All VFR flight must comply with the hemispheric rule as determined by Magnetic Course when 3000' or more AGL. FAR 91.159

5. VFR-on-top flights must give reports as though non-radar IFR.

6. ATC must make a specific request for a FAF report.

7. When abeam the NDB the outbound timing should begin.

8. Descent is at your discretion unless restricted by ATC.

9. It is recommended in AIM 5-33 that you report leaving an altitude. I feel that ATC likes to know a pilot is competent and knowledgeable.

10. It lets you fly at any altitude from the IFR minimum to 6000'. You can climb and descend at your discretion but you cannot climb again if you have reported to ATC that you are leaving an altitude. A cruise clearance is also a clearance to your destination. Rarely used.

11. ATC expects a minimum of 500 fpm. According to AIM 5-33 you are expected to advise ATC if you are unable to perform.

12. "Expedite' is used by ATC when immediate compliance is required.

13. Level flight. All climb and descent readings will be backward.

14. 24 hours

15. The morning forecast is valid for 12 hours. The evening for 18 hours.

16. "VFR flight is not recommended".

17. An AIRMET will not be issued if the information in the terminal forecast (FA).

18. Microbursts can be expected wherever there is convective activity.

19. An aircraft in a holding pattern can cause glideslope distortion.

 

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